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I am not 100% sure on this, and too busy to search my concordance, but i believe that there is no explicit prohibition against abortion or infanticide in the Old Testament. I was told the reason was that it would be unenforceable, both because women were property, and because there was no way to enforce such a prohibition.

Come famine, and the babies died first, law of nature. If a mother chose to perform triage, or if a deformed baby was born, then it was nobody's business what happened.